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阅读理解-七选五(约200词) | 适中(0.65) |
文章大意:本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了在网上交友时如何保护自己的一些建议和技巧。

1 . There are ways to make friends online while also keeping yourself protected. These are the top tips that you can follow to ensure this.

Choose the right apps

    1    . However, not all these apps are good. How can you tell the good apps from the bad ones? You should choose apps that only legal members can join. This will largely increase your chances of being safe with your new friends.

    2    

Don’t wait too long to figure out who your friend really is. If you find this person interesting and would like to continue chatting with him, you need to do a little background research.

Trust your feeling

This may seem like a rather old-fashioned idea but it is important.     3    , make it a point to trust what that little voice is telling you. If you have been speaking to someone for a while and you feel uncomfortable, there is probably a reason for that.     4    .

Meet your “friend” in a public place

You can't completely trust someone that you haven't actually met before. If you do decide that it is time to meet each other, then you should set up the place at a busy restaurant or coffee shop.     5    , even if you have met. Try to avoid going to an unfamiliar place.

A.Do some research
B.Shorten your personal information
C.When you are chatting with someone
D.You should continue to remain in public areas
E.There are many apps for you to look for friendship
F.In such a situation, it is best for you to cut off all the contact with that person
G.You should also be careful with the type of questions your online friends ask
今日更新 | 13次组卷 | 1卷引用:安徽省阜阳市2023-2024学年高一下学期第一次教学质量检测英语试题
阅读理解-七选五(约260词) | 较易(0.85) |
文章大意:这是一篇应用文。文章主要讲述了写出优美的、值得分享的诗歌的方法:选定一个特定的主题,避免陈词滥调,适合读出来的结构和选词,通过分享讨论获得反馈改进。

2 . Writing a poem is about observing the world within or around you.     1    , from love to loss to the gate at the old farm. Writing poetry seems difficult. However, with the right approach, you can write a poem that you can be proud to share with others.

Pick a specific theme or idea. This can make it easier for you to narrow down what images and descriptions you are going to use in your poem. For example, you may decide to write a poem around the theme of love and friendship.     2    .

Avoid cliché(陈词滥调). Your poetry will be much stronger if you avoid cliches, which are phrases that have become so familiar that they have lost their meaning.     3    . By doing so, your reader is surprised and attracted by your writing. If you feel a certain phrase or image is too familiar to your reader, replace it with a more unique one.

    4    . Poetry is made to be read out loud. So you should write your poem with a focus on how it sounds on the page. Pay attention to the structure of your poem and your word choice. Notice how each line of your poem flows into one another and how placing one word next to another creates a certain sound.

Get feedback(反馈) from others. You can also share your poem with other poets to get feedback from them and improve your poem.     5    , where you discuss your poems with other poets and work on your poetry together. Or you may take a poetry writing class, where you work with an instructor and other poets to improve your writing.

A.Write for the ear
B.Do writing exercises
C.A poem can be about anything
D.You may join a poetry writing group
E.Go for creative descriptions and images in your poem
F.Strong emotional moments make for beautiful and interesting poems
G.Then you may think about the moments where you experienced them
7日内更新 | 27次组卷 | 1卷引用:安徽省亳州市2023-2024学年高二下学期第二次阶段测试英语试题
3 . 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。

During winter, Leo noticed that of all the houses on the block, there was one with a messy, dirty yard that looked unattended. One day, after all the snow had melted and the trees were starting to bloom (开花) just in time for spring, Leo couldn’t help but stare at his neighbor’s messy yard a little longer. The melted snow showed all the buried leaves and other trash.

He went back home and brought the tools he needed. It took Leo the entire afternoon to clear the yard. He moved the melting snow out of the pathway and swept the leaves from the ground. He also trimmed (修剪) the bushes and left them as neat as he could.

The following morning, the old woman, Abigail, opened her door with joy. She had quietly watched the young man clean up the yard the day before, much to her relief.

Abigail had not left her house in months. She relied totally on her caregiver for her basic needs and was eager to get fresh air. After sitting in her wheelchair in her front yard for a couple of minutes, her neighbors started to notice her. They walked toward her to say hi, and soon, the crowd grew.

“It’s so lovely to see you outdoors, Abigail! How have you been?” one of them asked.

“I’m so happy to be breathing some fresh air for a change. I couldn’t leave the house for months because of the snow. It was too deep, and I couldn’t afford to hi re someone to help me with it,” Abigail admitted.

“But yesterday, I saw a kind young man cleaning my yard the entire afternoon. I wanted to thank him, but I had no food to offer him because my caregiver had not arrived yet,” she shared. “He is such a blessing. I couldn’t believe my eyes when I saw him!”

When Abigail praised the “kind young man” who helped her, they immediately knew it was Leo. The neighbors looked at each other, with guilty all over their faces. They realized they had been so blind to Abigail’s problems that no one thought to help her by cleaning her yard.

注意:1.续写词数应为 150个左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

They decided to thank Leo by visiting his house.

_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

When he opened his front door, Leo was surprised to see his neighbors bearing gifts.

_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
7日内更新 | 18次组卷 | 1卷引用:安徽省亳州市2023-2024学年高二下学期第二次阶段测试英语试题
阅读理解-阅读单选(约370词) | 适中(0.65) |
文章大意:本文是一篇新闻报道,主要讲的是全球肥胖症的严重性和普遍性,以及不同国家为应对肥胖问题所采取的政策和措施。

4 . More than 1 billion children, teenagers and adults live with obesity (肥胖) around the world, making it the most common form of malnutrition in many countries, according to a study published on Thursday in the journal The Lancet.

“Previous estimates by the World Obesity Federation suggested that there would be 1 billion people living with obesity by 2030, but that number was already overtaken in 2022,” Dr. Majid Ezzati, senior author of the study and professor at Imperial College London, said in a news conference on Thursday. “We hadn’t expected that the things happened so fast.”

The new global study, conducted by more than 1,500 researchers from the Non-Communicable Diseases Risk Factor Collaboration and the World Health Organization (WHO), analyzed the height and weight measurements of over 220 million people from more than 190 countries.

The study focused on rates of underweight and obesity, both forms of malnutrition that are harmful to people’s health. Adults were regarded as obese if their body mass index (指数) (BMI) was greater than or equal to 30 and considered as underweight if their BMI was below18.5. Children and teenagers were defined as obese or underweight based on age and sex, according to the study.

“Undernutrition and obesity are two faces of the same problem, which is the lack of access to a healthy diet,” Dr. Francesco Branca, director of the WHO Department of Nutrition and Food Safety, said in the news conference. “Public policy must aim to improve monitoring of food producers and ensure fair access to healthy and nutritious food for everyone. Over 3 billion people in the world still cannot afford a healthy diet.”

France, which saw a steady level in its obesity rates in the study, has carried out a national plan called Programme National Nutrition Santé that sets objectives for nutritional policy at the industry, consumer and research levels. Countries in South America have begun carrying out front-of-package nutritional labelling that includes clear warnings about fat, sugar and salt levels. Mexico has led the way on taxation of sweetened drinks, and in Chile, processed foods cannot be marketed to children.

1. How does Ezzati feel about the number of obese people worldwide in 2022?
A.Disappointed.B.Astonished.
C.Amused.D.Relieved.
2. How did the researchers conduct the new study?
A.By asking questions.B.By analyzing data.
C.By making observations.D.By carrying out experiments.
3. For adults, which BMI means normal weight according to the study?
A.33.B.30.
C.20.D.18.
4. What is the last paragraph mainly about?
A.The good habits of teenagers in South America.
B.The differences in diet among different countries.
C.The problems of rising obesity rates faced by France.
D.The measures taken by several countries to address obesity.
7日内更新 | 13次组卷 | 1卷引用:安徽省亳州市2023-2024学年高二下学期第二次阶段测试英语试题
阅读理解-阅读单选(约320词) | 适中(0.65) |
文章大意:本文是一篇新闻报道,主要讲的是《IQAir世界空气质量报告》关于2023年全球空气质量的调查结果。报告指出,仅有7个国家达到了世界卫生组织的污染建议,而大部分国家和地区的污染水平都高于世卫组织的指南要求。

5 . Information from this year’s IQAir World Air Quality Report showed only seven countries met the World Health Organization’s pollution recommendations in 2023, which were Australia, Estonia, Finland, Grenada, Iceland, Mauritius and New Zealand. Of the 134 countries and regions measured, 124 had higher levels than called for in the WHO pollution guidelines.

The report said the five countries with what it called the lowest air quality had particle (颗粒物) levels at least nine times higher than what the WHO recommends. Three South Asian countries — Bangladesh, Pakistan and India — had the world’s lowest air quality. In 2022, India was eighth and Bangladesh was fifth.

The information came from the Swiss company IQAir. The report used measurements from over 30,000 stations across 134 countries. IQAir used the WHO standard of PM 2.5 to measure the size of breathable pollutant particles in the air. The PM2.5 measurement means the particles are 2.5 microns (微米) or less in diameter (直径). The diameter of human hair, for example, is about 30 times larger than a particle of 2.5 microns.

In Bangladesh, the concentration of PM2.5 particles reached 79.9 micrograms per cubic meter in 2023. In Pakistan, the number was 73.7. India’s level was 54.4, Tajikistan in Central Asia was 49 and Burkina Faso in West Africa was the fifth-most polluted nation at 46.6.

Firoz Khan, an air pollution expert at North South University in Dhaka, Bangladesh, said 20 percent of the early deaths in the country were caused by air pollution. He added spending on pollution-related healthcare was equal to four to five percent of the nation’s economy.

Christi Chester Schroeder oversees air quality science for IQair. She said South Asia’s geography and climate conditions influence its air quality. “The pollution has nowhere to go,” she added. “Because of agricultural practices, industry and population density, it really does look like it is going to get worse before it gets better.”

1. What can be inferred from the text?
A.Bangladesh’s air quality may have decreased in 2023.
B.India’s air quality was greatly improved in 2022.
C.Mauritius had the fifth-worst air quality in the world in 2022.
D.Pakistan’s air quality was the third-worst in the world in 2023.
2. Why does the author mention “human hair” in paragraph.3?
A.To demonstrate how to use hair products.
B.To offer suggestions to people with hair problems.
C.To emphasize the difficulty of measuring pollutant particles.
D.To explain the size of breathable pollutant particles in the air.
3. Which statement will Christi Chester Schroeder probably agree with?
A.Developing agriculture will help improve air quality.
B.Geographical conditions have little influence on air quality.
C.The future of air quality in South Asia does not look bright.
D.South Asian countries should try to increase their populations.
4. What is the text mainly about?
A.A report on global air pollution.B.Plans to fight against air pollution.
C.The harm of air pollution to humans.D.Advice on cutting air pollution.
7日内更新 | 13次组卷 | 1卷引用:安徽省亳州市2023-2024学年高二下学期第二次阶段测试英语试题
阅读理解-阅读单选(约380词) | 适中(0.65) |
文章大意:本文是一篇记叙文,主要讲述了美国20世纪最有影响力的作家之一J.D. Salinger的生平、创作过程以及他最著名的作品《麦田里的守望者》的影响。

6 . Despite his slim body of work, J. D. Salinger was one of the most influential American writers of the 20th century. His short stories, many of which appeared in The New Yorker, inspired the early careers of writers such as Phillip Roth, John Updike and Harold Brodkey.

Born on January 1, 1919, in New York, Salinger was a restless student, attending New York University, Ursinus College and Columbia University. While taking classes at the latter, he met Professor Whit Burnett, who was also the editor of Story magazine. Burnett, sensing Salinger’s talent as a writer, pushed him to create more often and soon Salinger’s works were appearing not just in Story, but in other big-name publications such as Collier’s and the Saturday Evening Post.

His career had started to take off, but then, like so many young American men around that time, World War II interrupted his life. Following the attack on Pearl Harbor, Salinger was drafted into the army, serving from 1942 to 1944. During that time, however, Salinger kept writing for a new novel whose main character was a deeply unsatisfied young man named Holden Caulfield.

When Salinger returned to New York, he quickly set about resuming his life as a writer and soon found his work published in his favorite magazine, The New Yorker.

He also pushed on with the work on his novel about Holden Caulfield. Finally, in 1951, The Catcher in the Rye was published. The book earned its share of positive reviews, but some critics weren’t so kind. But over time the American reading public ate the book up and The Catcher in the Rye became an essential part of the academic literature course. To date, the book has sold more than 65 million copies.

In 1953, two years after the publication of The Catcher in the Rye, Salinger moved from New York City to Cornish, New Hampshire. There, Salinger did his best to cut off contact with the public and significantly slowed his literary output. He only published one new story, the 25,000-word Hapworth 16, 1924, before his death on January 27, 2010, in Cornish, New Hampshire.

1. Who had a great influence on J. D. Salinger?
A.Phillip Roth.B.Whit Burnett.
C.John Updike.D.Harold Brodkey.
2. What does the underlined word “resuming” in paragraph 4 mean?
A.Continuing.B.Saving.
C.Wasting.D.Risking.
3. What can be learned about The Catcher in the Rye from paragraph 5?
A.It was published during World War II.
B.It has sold less than 65 million copies.
C.It was well received by American readers.
D.It features an old man as the main character.
4. What do we know about J. D. Salinger?
A.He stopped writing when he was in the army.
B.He wrote lots of short stories in his later years.
C.His literary output was very low in his later years.
D.He had moved to New York City just before he died.
7日内更新 | 14次组卷 | 1卷引用:安徽省亳州市2023-2024学年高二下学期第二次阶段测试英语试题
完形填空(约240词) | 适中(0.65) |
文章大意:这是一篇记叙文。主要讲述了作者因为常年在国外旅行,和朋友与家人失去联系,感到与彼此的经历脱节了。但是作者认为如果你总是带着一颗为你所爱的人跳动的心去旅行,无论你在国外待了多久,你都会在家里找到满足。

7 . I just returned from India. While driving home from the airport, I was amazed by how everything in American streets ________ those in Delhi, a city in northern India. “You can eat off the street here!” I said. My family looked at me ________ I had gotten off a spaceship rather than a plane.

During the two years I was away, my friends and family ________ sending texts to each other by phone. After I came back, my phone was no longer ________ as before, just lighting up with the “ding” sound of a text, and I felt very ________. I chose to talk to my friends instead of texting them. I asked my friends for their ________ as I made an effort to ________ with them and rebuild our friendships.

While I was on my ________ trips, most of my friends had moved on with their ________. We felt disconnected from each other’s experiences. Just as ________ would always be part of my life, I understood that raising a family would always be part of theirs. I told them sometimes I felt ________ because I had been away and wasn’t there for their ________ events.

Expats (侨民) in Laos say that sometimes, if you stay abroad too long, you become a permanent ________, never quite making it as a local, and never feeling ________ in your home country. I ________. If you always travel with a heart beating for your beloved ones, no matter how long you have been abroad, you will find satisfaction at home.

1.
A.results inB.results fromC.differs inD.differs from
2.
A.even thoughB.as thoughC.now thatD.in that
3.
A.were devoted toB.looked forward toC.got used toD.were addicted to
4.
A.functioningB.ringingC.shiningD.shaking
5.
A.lonelyB.energeticC.curiousD.fortunate
6.
A.encouragementB.expectationC.understandingD.description
7.
A.researchB.recallC.relaxD.reconnect
8.
A.idealB.extraordinaryC.internationalD.dramatic
9.
A.livesB.studiesC.expectationsD.ambitions
10.
A.travellingB.surfingC.exercisingD.competing
11.
A.desperateB.memorableC.ashamedD.nervous
12.
A.factualB.specialC.externalD.similar
13.
A.nativeB.foreignerC.civilianD.resident
14.
A.contentB.uncontrolledC.astonishedD.secure
15.
A.acknowledgeB.betC.promiseD.disagree
7日内更新 | 30次组卷 | 1卷引用:安徽省示范高中培优联盟2023-2024学年高二春季联赛英语试题
听力选择题-长对话 | 适中(0.65) |
8 . 听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
1. What is the man doing?
A.Holding a workshop.B.Attending a lecture.C.Hosting a program.
2. Why does the woman like the violin best?
A.It makes a great range of sounds.B.It provides a basis for music.C.It fits various music styles.
3. What relation is Anna to the woman?
A.Her band member.B.Her English teacher.C.Her songwriter.
4. What will the woman do first?
A.Attend a festival.B.Organize an event.C.Take final exams.
7日内更新 | 5次组卷 | 1卷引用:2024届安徽省蚌埠市高三下学期第四次教学质量检测考试英语试题
听力选择题-短文 | 适中(0.65) |
9 . 听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。
1. What is the maximum age for the selected hearing dogs?
A.One year old.B.Two years old.C.Three years old.
2. Where will the dogs receive training right after being selected?
A.In training houses.B.In volunteers’ homes.C.In future owners’ homes.
3. Why does the deaf person stay at the training center for one week?
A.To get used to the hearing dog.
B.To help with the dog’s sound training.
C.To learn about the dog’s everyday life.
7日内更新 | 7次组卷 | 1卷引用:2024届安徽省蚌埠市高三下学期第四次教学质量检测考试英语试题
阅读理解-阅读单选(约230词) | 容易(0.94) |
文章大意:这是一篇记叙文。文章主要介绍了特蕾莎修女从童年愿望到成为传教士,再到创立修女组织帮助贫困和无家可归者,以及获得诺贝尔和平奖后仍无私奉献的一生。

10 . Mother Teresa was born in Skopje on August 27, 1901. Her father worked in a store. Her family was not rich, but it was a happy family. She went to school when she was seven years old. She said that she had wanted to be a Missionary (传教士) when she was only 12. She took part in a nun (修女) organization when she was 18 years old. In 1928, she was sent to a church school to teach. But she left the school and went out to help the people who suffered from hunger and cold in 1946. Then she left the nun organization and set up a school in the open to accept the children who had no home.

She set up a nun organization in 1950. Now the organization is an international organization with 3500 nuns to accept the refugees (难民). She got the Noble Peace Prize in 1979. But she contributed all of the money to the poor people and the patients who suffered from illnesses. Also she sold the medal to help the people who needed help. We won’t forget the great woman, who looks like a sunshine and is the hero of the world!

1. In which year did Mother Teresa say that she wanted to be a Missionary?
A.1908.B.1913.C.1928.D.1946.
2. For what kind of children was the school she set up?
A.Sick children.B.Small children.C.Homeless children.D.Rich children.
3. What can be learned from the article?
A.Mother Teresa used to be a teacher in a church school.
B.Mother Teresa was born into a rich and happy family.
C.Mother Teresa set up a church for homeless children.
D.Mother Teresa worked hard to support her own family.
4. How did Mother Teresa deal with the medal of the Noble Peace Prize?
A.She sold it to buy a new house.B.She kept it in a museum.
C.She contributed it to an organization.D.She sold it to help people in need.
7日内更新 | 30次组卷 | 1卷引用:安徽省马鞍山市高中六校联考2023-2024学年高一下学期4月阶段检测英语试题
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